Jawetz Microbiology Mcq Apr 2026
A) Lipid A-mediated cytokine storm B) IgA protease secretion C) Polysaccharide capsule that inhibits complement deposition D) Exotoxin A-mediated ADP-ribosylation of EF-2 E) M protein-mediated antiphagocytosis Answer: C – The organism is Haemophilus influenzae type b (requires X and V factors). Its polyribosylribitol phosphate (PRP) capsule is the major virulence factor for invasive disease (meningitis, epiglottitis). IgA protease (B) facilitates mucosal colonization but not invasion. Exotoxin A is from Pseudomonas . M protein is from Strep. pyogenes . 2. Antiviral Pharmacology A patient with HIV (CD4 count 180) on tenofovir, emtricitabine, and dolutegravir develops progressive outer retinal necrosis. PCR of vitreous fluid is positive for varicella-zoster virus (VZV). Which drug added to current ART would be most appropriate, and what is its mechanism?
A) Superoxide dismutase B) Catalase C) Pyruvate-ferredoxin oxidoreductase D) Cytochrome c oxidase E) Beta-lactamase Answer: C – The organism is Bacteroides fragilis group. Metronidazole is a prodrug reduced by ferredoxin (or pyruvate-ferredoxin oxidoreductase) in anaerobic bacteria; the reduced form damages DNA. Resistance can occur via nim genes that reduce metronidazole to inactive metabolites. Option A (SOD) is present in aerotolerant anaerobes but not metronidazole target. 5. Mycology – Antifungal Mechanism A patient with prolonged neutropenia develops a pulmonary cavity. A serum galactomannan antigen is positive. The isolate grows a greenish-brown colony with a red reverse on Sabouraud dextrose agar. Which drug’s mechanism is most specifically suited for this organism’s unique cell wall component? jawetz microbiology mcq
A) HSV-1 – trigeminal ganglia – sunlight/UV B) VZV – dorsal root ganglia – emotional stress C) EBV – B lymphocytes – plasmapheresis D) CMV – salivary gland endothelial cells – trauma E) HHV-6 – microglia – rituximab therapy Answer: A – HSV-1 reactivation is classically triggered by UV light, fever, stress. VZV reactivation (shingles) often has no clear trigger but can be stress/age-related; sunlight is not classic. EBV latency in B cells; reactivation more with immunosuppression. CMV latency in monocytes; plasmapheresis not a trigger. HHV-6 in microglia; reactivation post-transplant, not rituximab specifically. 8. Spirochetes – Diagnostic Pitfall A patient with a painless genital ulcer and inguinal lymphadenopathy has a darkfield microscopy positive for spirochetes. However, the RPR is negative. Which of the following best explains this seronegative primary syphilis? A) Lipid A-mediated cytokine storm B) IgA protease
A) Trophozoite – glycolysis via hexose monophosphate shunt B) Schizont – proteolysis of hemoglobin C) Hypnozoite – dormant stage in hepatocytes with slow metabolic rate D) Gametocyte – anaerobic respiration E) Merozoite – pentose phosphate pathway only Answer: C – P. vivax and P. ovale form hypnozoites in the liver, causing relapse months after primary infection. They are metabolically dormant but survive. Primaquine targets them. The 48-hour periodicity is tertian malaria. 7. Virology – Unusual Latency Which DNA virus is correctly paired with its primary site of latency AND a unique reactivation trigger that does NOT involve immunosuppression? Exotoxin A is from Pseudomonas
A) PYR positive – fibrinogen binding protein B) Optochin resistant – pneumolysin C) Bacitracin sensitive – M protein D) Hippurate hydrolysis – CAMP factor E) Lancefield group D antigen – cytolysin Answer: A – The organism is Enterococcus faecalis (bile-esculin +, 6.5% NaCl +). Among enterococci, E. faecalis is PYR positive (distinguishes from E. faecium sometimes). Key virulence for endocarditis includes aggregation substance and gelatinase. Option A’s “fibrinogen binding protein” refers to microbial surface component recognizing adhesive matrix molecules (MSCRAMMs). CAMP factor is Strep. agalactiae . Hippurate hydrolysis is S. agalactiae . 4. Anaerobes – Deep Concept A diabetic foot ulcer culture grows foul-smelling, gram-negative bacilli, resistant to kanamycin and vancomycin, but sensitive to metronidazole. Which enzyme system is directly inhibited by metronidazole in this organism?
A) Prozone phenomenon due to high antibody titer B) Infection with Treponema pallidum subspecies endemicum C) Simultaneous HIV infection causing B-cell dysfunction D) Early chancre (less than 1-2 weeks duration) E) Prior treatment with azithromycin Answer: D – RPR (nontreponemal) becomes positive 1–2 weeks after chancre appears. Very early primary syphilis can be RPR-negative but darkfield-positive. Prozone (A) occurs with high antibody titers causing false negative in undiluted serum, but usually in secondary syphilis. HIV (C) can cause false negatives or delayed seroreactivity, but the classic teaching is “too early.” 9. Mycobacteria – Cell Wall Function A patient with cavitary lung disease has an acid-fast bacillus that fails to grow on Lowenstein-Jensen medium at 37°C but grows rapidly at 30°C on Middlebrook 7H11. Which cell wall component accounts for this temperature restriction, and what is the organism?
A 45-year-old with a history of recurrent otitis media develops meningitis. CSF Gram stain shows small pleomorphic Gram-negative rods. The isolate requires X and V factors for growth. Which of the following virulence mechanisms is most directly associated with this organism’s ability to cause invasive disease?